Q. Here in the US where I live some people say that the permission stated in Verse 5 or Surah 5, allowing Muslims to eat meat slaughtered by Christians and Jews applied at the time of the revelation of the Qur’an when methods of slaughter were the same for all. Nowadays with new methods, the slaughter by Christians does not conform to the Islamic standard and therefore it is not allowed. Please comment.
Awais Mazhar
A. If a Qur’anic statement is given in general terms, its application cannot be restricted unless there is clear indication to support such restriction. This could be a Hadith speaking specifically about the statement in question, or a clear indication in the Qur’an. The statement you refer to says: “The food of the people of earlier revelations (i.e. Christians and Jews) is permissible for you and your is permissible for them, as also the chaste women from among the believers and from among the people of earlier revelations.” There is no indication in the text relating this permission to the method of slaughter. Nor is there any Hadith explaining this verse in such a way as to call for investigating the method of slaughter. It is a concession God has been gracious to give us. We take it as it is.
Imam Malik mentions that this concession makes lawful what they consider to be lawful in their religion, unless it is specifically forbidden for us, as in the case of pig meat. This means that the argument about the method of slaughter is incorrect in this case.
Some people argue that Christians nowadays do not mention God’s name before their slaughter, and we are specifically forbidden to eat of any meat if God’s name is not invoked at the time of its slaughter. But this is again not a valid argument. The Prophet’s companions complained to him saying: “We receive meat and we do not know if God’s name has been invoked at the time of its slaughter.” The Prophet told them: “Then you mention God’s name and eat.”
Unfortunately some Muslims take a very restrictive attitude in such matters. Islam is not about restrictions, but about discipline. God has granted certain concessions because He, in His infinite wisdom, knows that these will make matters much easier for Muslims. Therefore, we should take such concessions and act on them. By doing so, we earn reward from Him.
A Convert’s Marriage
Q. A married non-Muslim woman who left her husband with their two children in their home country has converted to Islam and is about to marry a new convert to Islam. Is she required to have a divorce first or not? She says that her main reason for converting to Islam is that she will have the freedom to marry a new man. Please comment.
M.C. Yao
A. On the basis of what you say, it seems to me that both the woman and her man have converted to Islam in order to have a certificate of marriage formalizing their relationship. It is not that they have been convinced of the truth of Islam; rather, it is a matter of convenience. It may be that no one can stop them from going ahead with their plan; but whether their marriage is valid in God’s sight is another matter altogether.
There is no doubt that if a woman embraces Islam and her husband does not, they are separated. Some scholars say that the marriage becomes in a state of suspension, but the majority considers it terminated after a waiting period of about three months. This termination allows the newly Muslim woman to marry a Muslim husband, without having to obtain a divorce from her husband.
Having said that, if she declares herself a Muslim only to make such a marital arrangement possible, then she is actually violating God’s law and she leaves herself open to God’s punishment. She should be very careful, because when a person plays games with God’s law, such a person is liable to incur God’s wrath. No one should place themselves in such a serious position.