Q.1. In our hometown in India most schools and colleges are run by non-Muslims. Education is generally good but certain parts of the syllabus are contrary to Islam. Is it permissible for Muslim schoolchildren to enroll in such schools, considering that Muslim schools are practically much lower in their educational standards.

Q.2. Is it permissible to receive donations for a mosque from non-Muslims?

Q.3. Why do we refer to God in the masculine, although He has no gender?

M. Anvardeen, Riyadh

A. A Muslim community should always be fully aware of its needs and try to meet them in the best possible way. Of course, a Muslim community needs good schools so that its children may receive proper instruction in the various areas of education, as well as in Islamic teachings. No successful Muslim community could afford to neglect such a need, because of the serious adverse effects such negligence is bound to have on its future generations. Therefore, if the Muslim schools in your community are of low standard, then the community must consider the ways and means necessary to redress this situation.

When good Muslim schools are available, then it is not permissible to send one’s children to other schools that teach something contrary to the Islamic faith, unless this is necessitated by some unavoidable factors. But when there are no Muslim schools to provide proper education of reasonable standards, then it is permissible to send one’s children to non-Muslim schools, but it is necessary to do two things:

The first is that additional arrangements should be made in order to teach those children some Islamic education to make up for the deficiency in their learning, and to rectify the questions that are taught in a way contrary to the Islamic faith.

The second important matter is that the Muslim community should work hard to end this unhealthy situation and establish Muslim schools of good standard to enable parents to provide their children with the necessary education in an Islamic environment.

A.2. If non-Muslims donate freely for the building of a mosque and we do not know of any questionable motive behind such donation, it is permissible to accept their donation.

A.3. Human language knows only two forms of nouns: masculine and feminine. It does not provide for anything other than these when it speaks of animate objects. Therefore, when we talk about any living being, we have to use either the masculine or the feminine form. Generally speaking, human language attaches, even implicitly, a higher status to the masculine. Hence, all human languages tend to refer to God in the masculine gender. Not only so, but you will find that in languages like Arabic, where masculine and feminine have different forms, God’s name and attribute generally take the masculine form.

Marital relations

Q. After 5 years of marriage and being blessed with a 3-year-old son, I feel unhappy in my relationship with my wife. For one thing, we live apart most of the time, because of my work in Saudi Arabia. She is very much under the influence of her parents who interfere much in our lives. They do not express their opinions to me directly, but only through my wife. I am trying to build a house for us, but she wants one which is beyond my means, and here she simply defers to her parents’ opinions. Although I have repeatedly asked her to leave her job so that she takes better care of our child, she insists on working. Could you please give me advice on what to do.

M.S., Yanbu

A. I am not sure whether this problem needs an answer in such a column or the couple need to see a marriage counselor. The points the husband raise are more of an ordinary disagreement between man and wife. He may not like the way things are going, but then if he looks at the situation carefully, he will not find much of it that is seriously wrong. He says in his letter that his wife loves him so much, but he complains that she is under the influence of her parents. Is this not natural when the couple are not living together most of the year, and the wife is staying with her parents? They are the ones whom she sees every day, and whom she is certain that they care only for her happiness with her husband.

He says that his wife’s parents try to interfere with his marital life, but they do not speak to him directly. Has he considered that this may be out of respect to him. It may be that his father-in-law feels that my reader could be sensitive if he talked to him directly. Therefore, he leaves it to his daughter to express the view which he sees to be right. There is nothing wrong with that, except it may create an element of touchiness, particularly if the wife is not diplomatic about the way she expresses that view. If she always tells her husband, “you should do like my father says,” then she is not helping the situation. On the other hand, she could state the same view as her own and her husband would not feel anything wrong. It is the approach that makes all the difference in such cases.

The reader finds his wife’s job a point of irritation. To start with, may I commend his attitude of not interfering with his wife’s income. That income is hers and she has the right to use it as she pleases. She must not forget, however, that her earnings are only possible because her husband allows her the time to go out and work. Therefore, some accommodation should be reached about a reasonable contribution to family finances. For example, if the wife in this situation is looking after her own needs, then that may be all that can be expected of her. She is entitled to be supported by her husband, even if she has an income bigger than his. So if she is looking after herself, that is fine.

In all this, I find the real problem is one of communication. The reader does not seem to put his point of view clearly to his wife and in-laws. They, on the other hand, find it difficult to talk to him directly. My advice to him is to have a very frank, polite and clear discussion with his wife and her parents to iron out all points of disagreement. I may add that when he insists on buying a house that is within his means, he is right.

He is not required by Islam to go beyond his means. If his wife and relatives have a different sort of advice, they should show him that it is practical and beneficial without landing him in debt for a long time.

Investment, loan and zakah

Q. 1. I have invested my end-of-service allowances in a government scheme which gives an income I use toward covering my family’s living expenses. Is the capital amount liable to zakah? I also have another amount of savings which I have earmarked to cover the marriage expenses of my children, but against it I have taken a loan. The income I receive from this saving pays off the loan installment. I also have invested some money in establishing a small business, but so far, the business is making a loss. Which of these amounts is liable to zakah?

Q. 2. I travel to visit my relatives regularly, who live at a distance of 76 kilometers by road. If I travel by sea, the distance is shorter by 20 kilometers. I am told that I may shorten my prayers when I travel by road, but not by sea. What if I use one method for going out and the other for my return journey?

S.A. Tungekar, India

A. 1. When a person has savings that give him an income, even though it may be only a small amount, he should reflect that he is in a much better situation than others who cannot earn enough to pay for their living. Therefore, he should be very grateful to God for having enabled him to make such savings and pay zakah on what he has. To try to justify non-payment on the basis that if he were to take out the amount of zakah, his savings and, in consequence, his income will be reduced is not a strong argument.

The fact is that he owns the invested money and he can do with it what he likes. In the situation of our reader, he meets most of his living expenses from the income he receives on his investment. This means that the amount invested is liable to zakah, every year, at the rate of 2.5 percent.

We look at such an investment in a different light from looking at a business. Had the reader used his money to build a factory or buy a business premises, or a farm, or a house for rent, then these assets would not have been liable to zakah. The income from them would be. But in his case, the certificates he bought are available to turn into cash at any time. Hence, they are treated as liquid money.

Having said that, I may add that some scholars feel that zakah on such investment should be considered differently. They say that the capital invested is not liable to zakah, but the dividends received are zakahable at the rate of 10 percent. Thus, they compare it to the zakah charged on agricultural produce that grows without need of any care or irrigation, relying only on rain water. The reader may take this view if he so prefers, but once the investment changes, and he cashes any part of it, it becomes part of his ready money which is zakahable in the normal way.

The amount saved for his children’s marriages is also liable to zakah, even though it is earmarked for this purpose. He has full access to it and can change its usage at any time. It is part of his own assets. Then liability to zakah cannot be waived. Although he uses the income to repay his debt, the principal is zakahable.

The business which does not generate any income has a different status. The reader has not told me what business it is. If it is a trading business, then his stocks which he owns in full are liable to zakah. He should calculate the value of his stock and pay zakah for it, as long as it is paid for. If his business is one of providing a service, with no trading commodities, then he would have no zakah to pay on that.

What the reader should do is to calculate his assets on his zakah date, and deduct the amount he owes, and pay zakah on the net assets.

A. 2. The relatives our reader visits are at a traveling distance, no matter what means of transport he uses. He may avail himself of the concession of shortening his prayers when he visits them, regardless of how he travels.

Answer to Mr. M. Afzal Mohiuddin of Taif

The question you have put to me concerning inheritance is unclear. To start with, step-relatives do not inherit anything. How could they when they are unrelated to the deceased person? It may be that your usage of the term is not accurate. In order to help me to answer your question, you have to tell me exactly how everyone is related to the deceased. Unless I have such information, it will be very difficult for me to give you any answer.