Q. Is it obligatory when we give a name to a newborn child using one of God’s 99 names to precede the name with Abd-al, so as to say Abd Al-Samad, Abd Al-Raheem? Can we drop this part and call the child Samad or Raheem?
S.S. Khan, Al-Khobar
A. God has a name which is His own and used as a proper noun. This name is Allah, which refers to Him only. It does not refer to anyone else in any human usage. The rest of His names are attributes denoting His qualities. Some of these apply to Him only, while others may be also attributed to His creation. Samad, for example, means “one who has the final say in all matters and is obeyed without question.” This is an attribute of God which does not apply to anyone of His creation. To call a child Samad is wrong and unfair to the child, because he could easily be bullied, ridiculed and taunted about his name. He can only be called Abd Al-Samad, which means “servant of the One to be obeyed.”
On the other hand, some of God’s attributes apply to some types of His creation, and man in particular. Attributes like compassion and mercy are of this type. Therefore, it is possible to call a child Ra’oof, Raheem, or Mu’eed, which respectively mean, compassionate, merciful and returner.
Wearing a beard
Q. In a discussion, several of my friends insisted that wearing a beard is obligatory for Muslim men. I looked at the Hadiths they have quoted, but I find the word Sunnah frequently occurs in them. Could you please explain whether it is obligatory.
N. Siddiqui
A. Wearing a beard is not obligatory, although it is mentioned in a few Hadiths. When we look at these, it clearly appears that they do not give an order, rather they state a recommendation. Moreover, the Prophet has made the reason clear in one of his Hadiths that mention wearing a beard. He wanted his community to be different in appearance from the idolaters. Therefore, he recommended them to trim their moustaches and wear their beards. The idolaters used to wear big moustaches which the Prophet disliked to be associated with his community.
Reading the Qur’an during a woman’s period
Q.1. A friend told me that she and some of her friends read the Qur’an in school when they are in the period, holding it directly without a cover. She says that there is nothing in the Qur’an or the Sunnah to stipulate that this is not permissible. Please explain.
Q. 2. Why do people offer taraweeh prayer in 20 rakaahs when Aishah confirms that the Prophet never prayed more than 11 rakaahs of night worship in Ramadan or on any other night?
Parveen
A.1. The overwhelming majority of scholars agree that it is not permissible to read the Qur’an when a man or a woman is in the state of ceremonial impurity, i.e. janabah. This state occurs for a man when he has ejaculated as a result of desire, whether through intercourse, wet dream or masturbation. As for a woman, it occurs as a result of intercourse or in her period. This relies on the Hadith which mentions that the Prophet performed his ablutions and read some parts of the Qur’an. He then said: “This is for someone who is not in the state of ceremonial impurity. If one is in that state, then no; not even a single verse.” (Related by Ahmad and Abu Ya’ala).
Some scholars of note say that it is appropriate for one who is the state of ceremonial impurity to read the Qur’an. These scholars include Al-Bukhari, Al-Tabarani, Dawood Al-Thahiri and Ibn Hazm. It is notable that all these are renowned scholars of Hadith, while the last two are also highly reputable Fiqh scholars. What this signifies is that these scholars have looked at the relevant Hadiths and found them lacking in authenticity. It is clear that Al-Bukhari does not consider as authentic any Hadith that forbids a woman in menstruation or a man in janabah to read the Qur’an. Other scholars who rely on these Hadiths consider them authentic. What should we do in such a case? It is up to everyone to decide which way he or she feels more comfortable with. If you decide that if Al-Bukhari has examined this question and decided that it is permissible, then the evidence supporting the opposite view is suspect, then you are all right. If on the other hand you feel that it is safer to go with the majority of scholars, you are all right. In order to help readers with this question, I would like to add two points. The first is that Ibn Abbas, the Prophet’s learned cousin did not disapprove of a person in janabah reading the Qur’an, saying that the Prophet read the Qur’an in all situations.
The second is a Hadith in which Maymounah, one of the Prophet’s wives reports: “God’s messenger might come into the apartment of any of us (i.e. his wives) and put his head in her lap and read the Qur’an when she is in menstruation. Then one of us may take his prayer mat and place it in the mosque when she is in her period.” (Related by Ahmad and Al-Nassaie).
A. 2. It is true that Aisha mentions that the Prophet never prayed more than 11 or 13 rakaahs of night worship on any night. If we take the first number, then these are 8 rakaahs of night worship and 3 of witr; while if we take the second figure, then the extra two rakaahs were short ones serving as an opener of his night worship. Yet this does not signify that this is the maximum limit.
In fact there is no limit to how many rakaahs we may offer in night worship. It is well known that Umar noticed that people were praying in several groups in the mosque in Ramadan. So he decided to make them in one congregation, appointing Ubayy ibn Kaab to lead the prayer, because Ubayy was perhaps the best reciter of the Qur’an among the Prophet’s companions. Ubayy led the prayer offering 20 rakaahs before praying witr. There were many of the Prophet’s companions in the congregation. Nobody objected to the number of rakaahs they offered, nor did any of the Prophet’s companions who heard of it even though they were not present. Hence, we can say that there is here a case of unanimity, or ijma’.
